1. The 1832 account of the first vision does not claim that only one being appeared but merely mentions one being.Shawn Henry wrote: ↑August 14th, 2023, 8:45 amWow! You dutifully parroted the narrative we all know and grew up with. Big problems with that narrative though.onefour1 wrote: ↑August 13th, 2023, 8:20 pm When Joseph Smith had his first vision, two beings appeared before him, the Father and the Son. Joseph later taught that both the Father and the Son have bodies of flesh and bones but the Holy Ghost did not have a body of flesh and bones but was a personage of spirit. So we see from this that there are three distinct personages in the godhead (D&C 130:22). If you read the King Follett Discourse, it is clear that the Father was an exalted man before this world was created. He was an immortal resurrected being who had already received his exaltation. Because he was immortal, he was inseparably connected to his body and could never die again. For this reason, he needed another to come to earth to lay down his life for the sins of the world. This other person was Jesus Christ who had not yet received a body and had not yet been resurrected to immortality. So according to the revelations of God to our beloved prophet Joseph Smith, God the Father and Jesus Christ are separate and distinct personages who sit side by side in the heavens above on their immortal thrones of glory. Their spirits are separate and their resurrected, exalted bodies are separate. They are only one in that Jesus and the Holy Ghost will only do the will of the Father. They are one is purpose and glory.
1. JS's 1832 account of the first vision (the only one in his handwriting) claims only one being appeared not two.
2. Section 130 is only claimed to have come from JS, he purposefully omitted in the 1844 D&C.
3. The HG being a personage is directly contradicted by the Lectures on Faith that JS established as canon, for the very reason of describing the Godhead.
4. The Father is a personage of spirit as expressed in the Bible, the BoM, the 1835 +1844 D&C.
By rejecting the God the scriptures declared to the saints, he turned them over to another god and tested them with non-scriptural teachings like section 130 and a random speech at a funeral, which they lapped up without question.
Trust scripture my friend, not alleged speeches at funerals.
By the way, in the BoM, Jesus repeats over and over again that he is the very Eternal Father, and he also repeats that he is the both the Father and the Son, and not with lower case f's like he's the junior father, they're upper case.
"a piller of fire light above the brightness of the sun at noon day come down from above and rested upon me and I was filled with the spirit of god and the <Lord> opened the heavens upon me and I saw the Lord16 and he spake unto me saying Joseph <my son> thy sins are forgiven thee. go thy <way> walk in my statutes and keep my commandments behold I am the Lord of glory I was crucifyed for the world that all those who believe on my name may have Eternal life <behold> the world lieth in sin and at this time and none doeth good no not one they have turned asside from the gospel and keep not <my> commandments they draw near to me with their lips while their hearts are far from me and mine anger is kindling against the inhabitants of the earth to visit them acording to thir ungodliness and to bring to pass that which <hath> been spoken by the mouth of the prophets and Ap[o]stles17 behold and lo I come quickly as it [is?] written of me in the cloud <clothed> in the glory of my Father18 and my soul was filled with love and for many days I could rejoice with great Joy and the Lord was with me but could find none that would believe the hevnly vision nevertheless I pondered these things in my heart"
Joseph here mentions that he saw the Lord and that the Lord spoke unto him. He doesn't mention that that was the only being or that there was only one. He simply recalls his experience with the Lord Jesus in this account. Joseph could simply have skipped over the introduction of the Lord Jesus by the Father and went straight to what the Lord told him.
Regardless of whether you trust any of the Joseph Smith accounts, Stephen in Acts 7:55-56 saw Jesus standing of the right hand of the Father:
Acts 7:55-56
55 But he, being full of the Holy Ghost, looked up steadfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing on the right hand of God,
56 And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of man standing on the right hand of God.
This is evidence that Jesus is not the same being as the Father. Other evidence is that if they were the same being, why would Jesus need to pray unto himself?
John 17:1
1 These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:
Why would Jesus need to go unto the Father if he is the Father? And why would Jesus say the Father is greater than himself?
John 14:28
28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
Why would Jesus say, "not my will but thy will be done"? If they are the same being, why do they have separate wills?
Luke 22:42
42 Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done.
If the oneness of God is that they are the same being, how is it that we can also become one even as Jesus and the Father are one?
John 17:20-23
20 Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word;
21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
22 And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
23 I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.
Does this mean to you that we will become the same being? Why does Jesus sit down on the right hand of the Father if he is the Father?
Matthew 26:64
64 Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
Hebrews 1:3
3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
2. Joseph Smith in his King Follett Discourse teaches that the Father is an exalted resurrected immortal being. As a resurrected immortal being He would have a resurrected body of flesh and bones the same as Jesus received after being resurrected. This also aligns with the following scripture:
Doctrine and Covenants 93:33
33 For man is spirit. The elements are eternal, and spirit and element, inseparably connected, receive a fulness of joy;
If the Father were nothing but spirit then he would not have a fulness of joy.
3. I am sure that Joseph Smith over a process of time gained a greater understanding of the character of God. It may be that at the time the Lectures on Faith were given, he probably did not have a complete understanding of the nature of each member of the godhead. Even though he received visitations, as far as I know he did not have physical contact. He probably had his own ideas of each member of the godhead. He knew from the New Testament that Jesus was resurrected and returned and showed his resurrected body to his disciples as mentioned in Luke 24. But by the time he gave the King Follett Discourse he fully understood the character of both the Father and the Holy Ghost in April of 1844. At the time he instructed Orson Hyde in regard to the teachings in Doctrine and Covenants 130, he fully understood the character of the Holy Ghost. If all of us along with Jesus Christ had need to resurrect, why wouldn't the Father also have a body of flesh and bones? In the 1950s the Lectures on Faith were removed from the D&C due to the contradiction of the Father being a spirit and later being a resurrected being per the King Follett Discourse. I view it strictly as Joseph gaining further light and truth over time being a prophet of God.
4. John 4:24
24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.
I can also say that I am a spirit and that would not be false. I am a spirit with a body. God also, in my estimation, is a spirit with a body. I don't think I have to rid myself of my body to worship in spirit and truth. Resurrected beings more than mortal beings are more spiritual.
1 Corinthians 15:42
42 So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption:
43 It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power:
44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.
45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.
47 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.
48 As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly.
49 And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.
If the Father is not a resurrected being, then why was it necessary that Jesus and the rest of us be resurrected to have an immortal body of flesh and bones? If the Father is the best of all beings, why would any of us need a resurrected body? It seems very logical that Jesus became what his Father is and sits beside him on his throne. It is logical that if resurrection is given to all that it must be a good thing and that it is likely that the Father himself has an immortal body of flesh and bones. Why would the Father need a personage of spirit in the godhead if he is nothing but a spirit? Was he too busy to do the job and needed another like himself? That seems incredible for a being who is all powerful and omnipresent. The LDS position of the character of God make much more sense than the concept you espouse. Finally, going back to Hebrews 1:1-3:
Hebrews 1:1-3
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
If Jesus is the brightness of his glory and the express image of his person, wouldn't that mean that God the Father has an immortal body of flesh and bones the same as Jesus? This is speaking of Jesus after he received the brightness and glory of his Father. They are the express image of each other. How can Jesus be the express image of the Father if the Father has no body? Again, Jesus is portrayed as separate being who looks exactly like His Father and sits down on his right hand after his resurrection. I think Joseph Smith was correct in his later teachings of the character of the Father that he is a resurrected immortal being who also has a body of flesh and bones. Thus they are the express image of each other.
