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Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 7th, 2010, 10:54 pm
by Ferg
Mosiah 18, 14-15
14 And after Alma had said these words, both Alma and Helam were aburied in the water; and they arose and came forth out of the water rejoicing, being filled with the Spirit.
15 And again, Alma took another, and went forth a second time into the water, and baptized him according to the first, only he did not bury himself again in the water.
O.K. explain this to me, how could Alma baptize himself, at the same time that he baptized Helam? Which is indicated in verse 14, yet it is also pointed out in the next verse that he did not "bury himself again in the water"..
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 12:28 am
by Geeswell
I've always wondered this as well. thanks for bringing this up. One thing I always thought of was, that Alma WAS a priest, I thought, although not a righteous one. so he may have already been baptized and perhaps this was a way of renewing his covenants?
i dunno!
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 6:31 am
by InfoWarrior82
Geeswell wrote:I've always wondered this as well. thanks for bringing this up. One thing I always thought of was, that Alma WAS a priest, I thought, although not a righteous one. so he may have already been baptized and perhaps this was a way of renewing his covenants?
i dunno!
I agree... since King Noah's wicked priests technically had the priesthood already.
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 6:56 am
by Henmasher
I read somewhere that it was is way of expressing his humility and willingness to take new direction from the lord. Sorry, no quote but I will look for it.
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 8:04 am
by Nan
Which brings up the question, what about Adam?
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 8:47 am
by Scarecrow
Henmasher wrote:I read somewhere that it was is way of expressing his humility and willingness to take new direction from the lord. Sorry, no quote but I will look for it.
Correct. The LDS Institute Manual says this:
President Joseph Fielding Smith explained that Alma had authority to baptize:
“We may conclude that Alma held the priesthood before he, with others, became disturbed with King Noah. Whether this is so or not makes no difference because in the Book of Mosiah it is stated definitely that he had authority [see Mosiah 18:13]. “If he had authority to baptize that is evidence that he had been baptized. Therefore, when Alma baptized himself with Helam that was not a case of Alma baptizing himself, but merely as a token to the Lord of his humility and full repentance” (Answers to Gospel Questions, comp. Joseph Fielding Smith Jr., 5 vols. [1957–66], 3:203).
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 9:00 am
by sbsion
symbolic rebaptism.......he had already been.."don't get caught in the box"

Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 9:10 am
by Wiikwajio
Nan wrote:Which brings up the question, what about Adam?
Moses 6: 64 And it came to pass, when the Lord had spoken with Adam, our father, that Adam cried unto the Lord, and he was caught away by the Spirit of the Lord, and was carried down into the water, and was laid under the water, and was brought forth out of the water.
65 And thus he was baptized, and the Spirit of God descended upon him, and thus he was born of the Spirit, and became quickened in the inner man.
I asked my dad years ago about Alma and he told me that one of the apostles said that Alma had been previously baptized and was just doing it to show his love for the Lord.
Sorry that I cannot remember which apostle.
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 11:27 am
by Henmasher
Quick note to everyone. You do not have to be baptized to baptize another person. You are required to have authority to baptize. I.e. aaronic priesthood.
People to consider...
Joseph Smith
Oliver Cowdery
John the Baptist
Baptism is an ordinance performed in the flesh by people with flesh and authority. Except for Adam I do not see one where baptism was performed in any other way. Does somebody have insight to that one?
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 8:57 pm
by php123
Henmasher wrote:Quick note to everyone. You do not have to be baptized to baptize another person. You are required to have authority to baptize. I.e. aaronic priesthood.
Umm. Since when can you have the Aaronic Priesthood without being baptized?
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 9:18 pm
by M249Gunner
php123 wrote:Henmasher wrote:Quick note to everyone. You do not have to be baptized to baptize another person. You are required to have authority to baptize. I.e. aaronic priesthood.
Umm. Since when can you have the Aaronic Priesthood without being baptized?
See the Henmasher statement from Thu Jul 08, 2010 10:27 am.
If I recall correctly, John the Baptist gave the authority to Joseph and Oliver, then one baptized the other.
Re: Why was Alma allowed to baptize himself??
Posted: July 8th, 2010, 9:40 pm
by Mahonri
Wow! What can be done to help us understand Church history/scriptures better?