-------------caburnha wrote: ↑March 5th, 2019, 3:59 amI AM wrote: ↑March 4th, 2019, 7:09 pm------------caburnha wrote: ↑March 4th, 2019, 4:14 pmI AM wrote: ↑March 4th, 2019, 8:40 am so with out really wanting to take sides on this, for or against polygamy,
I'm wondering just HOW can we justify all this, and
I just want to know from those that do not believe in it and believe that we shouldn't have lived it,
do you then believe that section 132 is just all bogus, and made up ?
I guess I could understand if God always opposed it, but we know that great men -Abraham - our father,
Isaac, Jacob, as also Moses, David and Solomon lived it.
Abraham - who the Lord said:
"In thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed—"
2 Nephi 29
14 And it shall come to pass that my people, which are of the house of Israel, shall be gathered home unto the lands of their possessions; and my word also shall be gathered in one. And I will show unto them that fight against my word and against my people, who are of the house of Israel, that I am God, and that I covenanted with Abraham that I would remember his seed forever.
We can't dispute that Polygamy was a huge part of our churches history
and that we were told by the lord to live it, and what the consequences would be if we didn't.
And that it was lived and practiced by many members at that time.
So are we going to say that it was just some made up thing, some BIG mistake that the church made in the beginning ?
I"ve heard so many members that believe that.
But we can not just sweep it under the rug.
Or should we accept the fact that it is, what the Lord says it is - "It is an eternal principle and was given by way of commandment and not by way of instruction.”... JS "a new and an everlasting covenant" ;
(that we should still be living.)
It is an everlasting and eternal principal, a " new and everlasting covenant, it was instituted for the fulness of my glory; and he that receiveth a fulness thereof must and shall abide the law, or he shall be damned,
saith the Lord God."
I wonder where YOU might be without it ?
"the whole nation of Israel comes from the offspring of the four wives of Jacob.
(2 wives, 2 concubines)"
If you'd like to know how some of us could possibly say such things, I'd suggest starting with the document linked below and/or the book called "Exoneration of Emma Joseph and Hyrum". Don't just believe the author's conclusions but look up the primary sources yourself, then be prayerful and trust the Lord. Allow yourself to be willing to examine your preconceived notions...
Now just because some people have been able to make a good case against polygamy coming from the Lord and Joseph, it doesn't mean it's the whole truth - it'd be foolish to think so... but I do believe there's enough evidence to show that the story behind polygamy may be extremely different than we may have imagined... and if that's true, then scriptures such as 2 Nephi 28, Mormon 8 & 9, Ether 8, D&C 84, D&C 124, and many others that have a voice of warning to us take on a whole new meaning...
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source= ... Gxhd99PRmS
so let me get this straight.
again, I'm not really defending polygamy,
but just trying to understand how you could be reasoning this.
First, you really didn't address the things that I mentioned.
Like, I guess then that you're not accepting, and throwing out the window
the fact that God allowed great men in the Bible to have more than one wife.
Then, you are also going to completely ignore section 132 and throw that out the window.
Have I got that correct then ?
so then was it a fake revelation that was made up ?
Also, then, are you saying that, with the Lord restoring the gospel through Joseph Smith, and at that time polygamy was not included with the restoration of the church, and Joseph Smith was not practicing it; so later, when the church - prophets and members were living it, they must have been under condemnation from God for making up a revelation to practice it and doing it.
So all during the time that the church was practicing polygamy, the church must have been under condemnation for such a thing, and I would then assume, not receiving revelation from the lord.
Then what, the manifesto was issued ending plural marriage and the church was
again restored to God's grace.
Is that about the gist of it ?
I do apologize, I AM. It appears that you were looking for a different type of response from me than I gave.
I took your original question to be this – how can one possibly justify a belief that polygamy may not have been commanded by God to the early Latter Day Saints despite all the evidence to the contrary?
In response to you, I attempted to share a couple of the resources that began me down that path. This path is not of knowledge, neither even belief, that polygamy was not commanded by God. Rather I now accept that there very well could be a few different scenarios, each of which would certainly shatter our paradigm. For me, this was at first scary and unbelievable – but then it became a process that was both incredibly promoting of my faith in the Lord’s hand in all things, and also aided in taking away some of my stumbling blocks that are keeping me from approaching him and receiving his spirit.
I encourage you to read the link I sent previously, and even the short book. Those authors put the research together better than I can in a message board post…. Obviously...
Now I’ll attempt to quickly address your comments. Your comments are bold and italicized, with my responses following. I don’t intend this to be a back and forth debate. Again, this began by you asking me (and others) HOW and WHY we could possibly doubt the divine origin of the polygamy practiced by Brigham et al… I’m merely attempting to answer that question. I assume that your question was a sincere one, and that you truly are trying to understand those that have a different view point than yours. If you fire back with rebuttals and scriptures, I’ll read them and consider them, but I’m not going to scripture/history bash. That's not my intent, and it probably shouldn't be yours. I hope you’ll understand.
I'm wondering just HOW can we justify all this, and I just want to know from those that do not believe in it and believe that we shouldn't have lived it, do you then believe that section 132 is just all bogus, and made up ?
I believe there is a case to be made that the revelation that became D&C 132 did not entirely come from Joseph. This revelation was not added to the D&C until 1876 (one year prior to Brigham’s death, and 32 years after Joseph’s death). At the same time that this was added to the D&C, the section commanding monogamy was removed. The revelation did not appear until 1852, when it was published in the Deseret News. Until then, this revelation was unknown, because the original was thrown in the fire by Emma, as the story goes. Emma, of course, denied this to her death. What surfaced was admittedly a copy of the original, that was made by a then already practicing polygamist Joseph Kingsbury. The only others who testified of the original were Brigham Young and William Clayton, both already practicing polygamists. Of course Brigham had some… um…. well, let’s just say, un-Christlike things to say about Emma…
The only other person, that I’m aware of that claimed to see the “original revelation” was James Whitehead. This man apparently took over as Joseph’s scribe for William Clayton in 1843. In his testimony in the Temple Lot Case, he said that he had seen the revelation, but that it was much shorter in duration and contained nothing about polygamy and plural marriages, only information on the doctrine of sealings. Furthermore, he testified that he had lived next door to the prophet and saw him almost every day in the early 1840s and that he only ever saw that Joseph had one wife, being Emma.
Of course this is the same Temple Lot case where Joseph Smith III formally disputed the Brighamite church’s claim that polygamy had originated with his father Joseph. All the known evidence was brought forth and a judge ruled in favor of the Reorganized Church, under Joseph III, that their teachings – including no polygamy- more closely resembled the early church teachings, and had an ownership claim to the Independence Missouri temple lot.
I guess I could understand if God always opposed it, but we know that great men -Abraham - our father, Isaac, Jacob, as also Moses, David and Solomon lived it. Abraham - who the Lord said: "In thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed—"
There is no disputing that some of these men lived it. Though, Isaac did not appear to have more than one wife, and I question that Moses did either. BUT, the question is, was this provision (known as the Levirate Law, detailed in Genesis 38) a commandment given to man as a Celestial pattern of marriage, and a requirement to obtain the Celestial kingdom to those commanded it? Likewise, did this provision justify the taking of up to dozens of wives, as did David and Solomon's (and Brigham and John Taylor...)? According to the Book of Mormon, this practice of many multitudes of wives done by David and Solomon was abominable and wicked. The Levirate Law seems to have much stricter guidelines of when someone was to take a 2nd wife. Almost always as a charitable act to one’s brother who had left a widow – with no seed. Did God command Abraham to take Hagar? Or did Abraham taking Hagar (at Sara’s beckoning due to her own barrenness) result in a delay of God’s blessing of a birthright son? What were the actual conditions that resulted in Jacob/Israel taking a 2nd wife. Was this a commandment of God? If we are to believe the Book of Mormon, the danger of this practice is that it was almost always abused and resulted in suffering. Did Brigham and the early church so that same pattern of abuse?
Let’s remember that this provision written within the Law of Moses was part of the LESSER LAW. When did any people who obtained Christ’s new covenant (i.e. Book of Mormon and New Testament Church) practice it whatsoever? There were also provisions for slavery, death penalties for breaking the Sabbath, death penalties for not honoring one’s Father and Mother, and strict commandments on haircutting. Obviously none of these practices are candidates of Celestial Law that we should reinstitute. But yet, we are so quick to accept the polygamy is – just because our leaders told us so??? Could it be that such things as slavery and polygamy already pervaded the culture? And if so, isn't it remotely possible that the lesser law of Moses simply put bounds upon these practices? I don't know the answer, and I doubt anyone really does...
We can't dispute that Polygamy was a huge part of our churches history and that we were told by the lord to live it, and what the consequences would be if we didn't. And that it was lived and practiced by many members at that time. So are we going to say that it was just some made up thing, some BIG mistake that the church made in the beginning ?... We cannot just sweep it under the rug.
No we cannot ignore that this happened, and sweep it under the rug, though I do question whether or not we were told by the Lord to live it. But let’s also not ignore one very very interesting fact… We weren’t the 1st restorationist sect in that area, and in that time period, to come up with the idea of “spiritual wifery”. Yes, this was the common term for what later became known as “Celestial Plural Marriage”. Please study Jacob Cochran and the Cochranites that were centered in Massachusetts and Maine. I’m not going to be comprehensive here, but yes, it is documented fact that a major tenet of this sect was to restore the practices of David and Solomon and other Old Testament practices. The early Quorum of the Twelve spent a significant amount of time with these people, as evidenced by their journal. It appears Brigham requested return missions to them.
Later a book was written and circulated in the English missions (where the Twelve were all serving missions, separated from the rest of the Kirtand/Nauvoo church) that promoted the virtues of “spiritual wifery”. With these years away, is it possible that some of the Twelve could have set their heart upon this doctrine, and believed it to be a true principle? Is it merely a coincidence that the Twelve all later adopted polygamy, while the 1st Presidency (Joseph, Hyrum, and Syndey) all fought it- at least in public? What contemporary evidence existed (meaning at the time Joseph was alive) that he was teaching or endorsing polygamy versus fighting it and excommunicating those who were actually practicing it in secret? What evidence surfaced many years later (much in preparation for the Temple Lot Case and in efforts to achieve Utah Statehood) in the former of testimonies and claims by then seasoned polygamists? If Joseph and Hyrum were, in deed, fighting polygamy – is there any possibility that some of his brethren ( that had come to believe in the principle) might have considered him a “fallen prophet”? They certainly wouldn’t have been the first of Joseph’s friends to have considered him a fallen prophet…
I believe these to be important issues. Please study those two resources I shared with you. And read the primary resources (much of which is easily found in the Joseph Smith Papers Project).
Or should we accept the fact that it is, what the Lord says it is - "It is an eternal principle and was given by way of commandment and not by way of instruction.”... JS "a new and an everlasting covenant" ; (that we should still be living.) It is an everlasting and eternal principal, a " new and everlasting covenant, it was instituted for the fulness of my glory; and he that receiveth a fulness thereof must and shall abide the law, or he shall be damned, saith the Lord God."
I don’t consider this fact, as previously stated. These ideas were first proposed in Section 132, which completely revolutionized the Doctrine of Christ and the Eternal Covenant. Do these doctrines conform with the witness of the rest of scripture?
I wonder where YOU might be without it ?
I wonder the same thing. Do I believe that polygamy was the cause of our condemnation? Not really. I have a strong suspicion that we had already incurred the condemnation of God by not seeking his face and living his law. It appears that we lost the fullness of the priesthood, at the very least. This is obviously well documented in Section 84, 124, and other places. Were we "rejected as a church, with our dead" completely? I don't know. I do know we lack most of the spiritual gifts promised to the believers.
Then what, the manifesto was issued ending plural marriage and the church was again restored to God's grace?
Um, I look around and I see a very similar scenario as I read about in 2 Nephi Chapter 28, Alma Chapter 4, Mormon chapter 8, and many other places in the Book of Mormon. I know very few that know the Savior and have been born again spiritually like those of King Benjamin’s people, Alma’s people, and Ammon’s people. We deny great miracles and laugh at the thought of literal ministering angels and speaking in tongues. It seems to me that our current state of unbelief and lack of faith may mean we “are not fit to be numbered among the people of his church.” (Moroni 7:39).
The biggest lasting result I see of the Manifesto is the myth (that has transformed itself into a core doctrine of our church) that we will never ever never ever never in a million years be led astray by our leaders… We have been almost completely lulled into “carnal security”, for “all is well in Zion”. Did Joseph Smith ever teach this doctrine? What did he mean, exactly, when he read the entirety of Ezekiel chapter 14 to a large relief society gathering in 1842 when he said “that they were depending on the Prophet, hence were darkened in their minds in consequence…” And yes, as SilverPie just stated.... Brigham never did claim to be a prophet...
So what now? We must come to Christ and believe his doctrine, and fully submit to Him until we are born again of the spirit. That is the only way out of whatever “awful situation” we currently find ourselves.
so that was great !
and thank you for taking all that time to answer my questions and express what you believe.
To me, sincerity is everything, so thank you.
I can see you have spent a lot of time studying this and seeking the Lord for answers and the truth.
like I said, I'm probably not as interested in this as you are, because I have other things I'm studying that i'm more interested in.
And I'm more just interested in finding the simple truth, right or wrong kind of logic than the specifics of all of this.
Again I'm not defending polygamy. I'm just trying to find out how it was accepted by God in the Bible.
And if it was accepted, to me that would open the door to why it was given to live in the church.
I guess for me my simple logic is that having more than one wife has to be right, or very wrong.
And even though we know what the Book of Mormon says about this,
(and believe me, the Book of Mormon means everything to me), if this is wrong, and an abomination before God, then why would God allow (no matter why or what the circumstance were) such great prophets - Abraham and Jacob,
to have more than one wife and also concubines ? Would God allow this if it really was an abomination ?
Or are we just going to say that (these are), and there are exceptions.
Seems to me that it would have to be the right thing to do, or very very wrong.
I mean, if it was wrong, (and again, no matter what the circumstances were), how could God approve of it and not condemn these men for doing it ?